Wednesday, August 07, 2013

Legal inequality

Jeff at Gay Patriot asks why are homicide laws different for men and women? He cites several cases in which a man was prosecuted for murder, after causing a woman to have an abortion. If the woman had aborted her fetus, she would not have been charged with murder.

In each example, the men certainly deserve charges/punishment for other reasons; namely, for crimes of fraud, assault, kidnapping or rape.

But murder? In each case, the murder charge arose from the man having aborted his fetus (that is, the fetus created from his genes). Is that just? In each example, if the woman had aborted her fetus, she would not be charged with murder.

Why is it a crime of homicide when the father terminates the fetus, but not when the mother does? Why should the same action (killing the fetus) be a crime, or not, depending on who (which parent) did it?

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